3.13 Electronics (A-level only) — coverage pack

18 specification leaves · notes, questions, answers and worked methods

3.13.1.1 · MOSFET (metal-oxide semiconducting field-effect transistor)

  • An enhancement-mode n-channel MOSFET has gate, drain and source terminals. A silicon dioxide layer insulates the gate from the channel, giving a very large input resistance and negligible steady gate current.
  • The gate-source potential difference VGSV_{\mathrm{GS}} controls the drain current. Below the threshold VthV_{\mathrm{th}} the device is effectively off; above threshold a conducting channel forms, but VGS=VthV_{\mathrm{GS}}=V_{\mathrm{th}} does not mean the MOSFET is fully on.
  • As a low-side switch, the source is connected to 0V0\,\text{V} and the load lies between the positive supply and the drain. A pull-down resistor prevents an unconnected insulated gate from retaining charge.
  • For a resistive drain load, the load line is VDS=VSIDRV_{\mathrm{DS}}=V_{\mathrm{S}}-I_{\mathrm{D}}R. Its intersection with the output characteristic gives the operating point; exam answers should check that the point lies in the assumed region.
  • A common error is to treat the MOSFET as a current-operated device or to ignore its power P=IDVDSP=I_{\mathrm{D}}V_{\mathrm{DS}} when judging whether it is acting as an efficient switch.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. State the condition involving VGSV_{\mathrm{GS}} and VthV_{\mathrm{th}} for an enhancement-mode n-channel MOSFET to begin conducting.[1 mark]

    Answer

    • VGS>VthV_{\mathrm{GS}}>V_{\mathrm{th}}.

    Method: A conducting channel begins to form when the gate-source potential difference exceeds the threshold value, so the condition is VGS>VthV_{\mathrm{GS}}>V_{\mathrm{th}}.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. A 9.0V9.0\,\text{V} moisture alarm has a sensor of resistance RR from the positive supply to a MOSFET gate and a 1.5MΩ1.5\,\text{M}\Omega resistor from the gate to 0V0\,\text{V}. The MOSFET threshold voltage is 3.0V3.0\,\text{V}. Determine RR when the MOSFET first switches on.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • 3.0MΩ3.0\,\text{M}\Omega

    Method: The insulated gate takes negligible current, so the two resistors form an unloaded potential divider. At threshold, 3.0=9.0×1.5R+1.53.0=9.0\times\frac{1.5}{R+1.5}, with resistances in MΩ\text{M}\Omega. Hence R+1.5=4.5R+1.5=4.5 and R=3.0MΩR=3.0\,\text{M}\Omega.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A MOSFET controls a 150Ω150\,\Omega load from a 12.0V12.0\,\text{V} supply. At the applied gate voltage its output characteristic is approximated by ID=65mAI_{\mathrm{D}}=65\,\text{mA} for VDS2.0VV_{\mathrm{DS}}\geq2.0\,\text{V}. Use load-line reasoning to determine the operating values of VDSV_{\mathrm{DS}}, load power and MOSFET power. Deduce whether the MOSFET is acting as an efficient fully-on switch.[5 marks]

    Answer

    • VDS=2.25VV_{\mathrm{DS}}=2.25\,\text{V}, Pload=0.634WP_{\mathrm{load}}=0.634\,\text{W} and PMOSFET=0.146WP_{\mathrm{MOSFET}}=0.146\,\text{W}; it is not acting as an efficient fully-on switch.

    Method: The load line is VDS=12.0ID(150)V_{\mathrm{DS}}=12.0-I_{\mathrm{D}}(150). Using ID=0.065AI_{\mathrm{D}}=0.065\,\text{A} gives VDS=12.0(0.065)(150)=2.25VV_{\mathrm{DS}}=12.0-(0.065)(150)=2.25\,\text{V}. This is at least 2.0V2.0\,\text{V}, so the assumed part of the output characteristic is self-consistent. The load power is Pload=ID2R=(0.065)2(150)=0.63375W=0.634WP_{\mathrm{load}}=I_{\mathrm{D}}^2R=(0.065)^2(150)=0.63375\,\text{W}=0.634\,\text{W}. The MOSFET dissipates PMOSFET=IDVDS=(0.065)(2.25)=0.146WP_{\mathrm{MOSFET}}=I_{\mathrm{D}}V_{\mathrm{DS}}=(0.065)(2.25)=0.146\,\text{W}. A fully-on switch should have a very small VDSV_{\mathrm{DS}} and small dissipation, so this operating point is not an efficient fully-on state.

3.13.1.2 · Zener diode

  • A Zener diode is used in reverse bias. At its breakdown voltage VZV_{\mathrm{Z}}, a large change in reverse current produces only a small change in potential difference, so it can provide a stabilised reference voltage.
  • A series resistor is essential to limit current. With no load, RS=(VinVZ)/IZR_{\mathrm{S}}=(V_{\mathrm{in}}-V_{\mathrm{Z}})/I_{\mathrm{Z}}; with a parallel load, the resistor current is IS=IZ+ILI_{\mathrm{S}}=I_{\mathrm{Z}}+I_{\mathrm{L}}.
  • A regulator must keep IZI_{\mathrm{Z}} above its minimum value at minimum supply voltage and maximum load current, then satisfy Zener and resistor power ratings at maximum supply voltage and minimum load current.
  • The Zener power is PZ=VZIZP_{\mathrm{Z}}=V_{\mathrm{Z}}I_{\mathrm{Z}} and the series-resistor power is PR=IS2RSP_{R}=I_{\mathrm{S}}^2R_{\mathrm{S}}. Quote a standard component rating above the calculated dissipation.
  • A common error is to size the resistor using only the load current: the resistor must carry both load current and the current needed to keep the Zener in breakdown.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. State the bias direction and operating region used when a Zener diode provides a constant-voltage reference.[1 mark]

    Answer

    • Reverse bias in the Zener breakdown region.

    Method: The nearly constant-voltage part of a Zener characteristic is its reverse-breakdown region, so the diode must be reverse biased beyond the Zener voltage.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. A no-load voltage reference uses a 5.6V5.6\,\text{V} Zener diode on a 12.0V12.0\,\text{V} supply. Calculate the series resistance required for a Zener current of 16mA16\,\text{mA}.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • 400Ω400\,\Omega

    Method: The resistor potential difference is VR=12.05.6=6.4VV_R=12.0-5.6=6.4\,\text{V}. The no-load resistor current equals the Zener current, IR=16mA=0.016AI_R=16\,\text{mA}=0.016\,\text{A}. Therefore R=VR/IR=6.4/0.016=400ΩR=V_R/I_R=6.4/0.016=400\,\Omega.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A 6.2V6.2\,\text{V} Zener circuit is supplied from a fixed 14.0V14.0\,\text{V} source. The parallel load can draw up to 18mA18\,\text{mA} and the Zener needs at least 5.0mA5.0\,\text{mA}. Determine the largest suitable series resistor from 330Ω330\,\Omega, 360Ω360\,\Omega and 390Ω390\,\Omega, and then determine minimum safe power ratings for the resistor and Zener when the load is disconnected.[5 marks]

    Answer

    • 330Ω330\,\Omega; use at least a 0.25W0.25\,\text{W} resistor and a 0.25W0.25\,\text{W} Zener diode.

    Method: At maximum load the resistor must supply IS=IL+IZ,min=18+5=23mAI_{\mathrm{S}}=I_{\mathrm{L}}+I_{\mathrm{Z,min}}=18+5=23\,\text{mA}. Its maximum allowed resistance is Rmax=(14.06.2)/(0.023)=339ΩR_{\max}=(14.0-6.2)/(0.023)=339\,\Omega, so only 330Ω330\,\Omega is suitable. With the load disconnected, all resistor current enters the Zener: I=(14.06.2)/330=0.0236AI=(14.0-6.2)/330=0.0236\,\text{A}. The resistor dissipates PR=I2R=(0.0236)2(330)=0.184WP_R=I^2R=(0.0236)^2(330)=0.184\,\text{W}, and the Zener dissipates PZ=(6.2)(0.0236)=0.147WP_{\mathrm{Z}}=(6.2)(0.0236)=0.147\,\text{W}. The next stated rating above each value is 0.25W0.25\,\text{W}.

3.13.1.3 · Photodiode

  • A photodiode converts incident radiation into a photocurrent. Within its linear range, the photocurrent is proportional to incident optical power or irradiance.
  • In photovoltaic mode there is no external bias. In photoconductive mode the diode is reverse biased, widening the depletion region and usually giving faster response and a wider useful linear range.
  • Responsivity SS has units A W1\text{A W}^{-1} and links optical power to current through Ip=SPI_{\mathrm{p}}=SP. A resistor or current-to-voltage amplifier then converts the small current into a measurable voltage.
  • Photodiodes can detect radiation directly or detect flashes from a scintillator when charged particles or gamma photons deposit energy in it.
  • A common error is to describe a photodiode as a light-dependent resistor. A photodiode produces a photocurrent; its polarity, operating mode and any graph scale must be read carefully.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. Name the operating mode of a photodiode that has an external reverse-bias voltage.[1 mark]

    Answer

    • Photoconductive mode.

    Method: A reverse-biased photodiode is operating in photoconductive mode; photovoltaic mode uses no external bias.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. A photodiode has responsivity 0.42A W10.42\,\text{A W}^{-1} at the wavelength used. Radiation of power 8.0μW8.0\,\mu\text{W} reaches it and its photocurrent passes through a 180kΩ180\,\text{k}\Omega resistor. Calculate the magnitude of the resistor voltage.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • 0.60V0.60\,\text{V}

    Method: The photocurrent is Ip=SP=(0.42)(8.0×106)=3.36×106AI_{\mathrm{p}}=SP=(0.42)(8.0\times10^{-6})=3.36\times10^{-6}\,\text{A}. The resistor voltage is V=IR=(3.36×106)(180×103)=0.6048VV=IR=(3.36\times10^{-6})(180\times10^3)=0.6048\,\text{V}, which is 0.60V0.60\,\text{V} to two significant figures.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A particle deposits energy in a scintillator, producing a 25ns25\,\text{ns} optical pulse of constant power 4.0μW4.0\,\mu\text{W}. A reverse-biased photodiode has responsivity 0.48A W10.48\,\text{A W}^{-1} and its readout converts the photocurrent using 270kΩ270\,\text{k}\Omega. Explain how the particle is detected, then calculate the voltage-pulse magnitude and the number of charge carriers in the photocurrent. Use e=1.60×1019Ce=1.60\times10^{-19}\,\text{C}.[5 marks]

    Answer

    • The scintillator flash produces a photodiode current pulse; the voltage magnitude is 0.52V0.52\,\text{V} and the pulse contains 3.0×1053.0\times10^5 charge carriers.

    Method: The particle excites the scintillator, which emits a flash; the reverse-biased photodiode converts that light pulse into an electrical current pulse. The current is I=SP=(0.48)(4.0×106)=1.92×106AI=SP=(0.48)(4.0\times10^{-6})=1.92\times10^{-6}\,\text{A}. The readout voltage magnitude is V=IR=(1.92×106)(270×103)=0.5184V=0.52VV=IR=(1.92\times10^{-6})(270\times10^3)=0.5184\,\text{V}=0.52\,\text{V}. The charge in 25ns25\,\text{ns} is Q=It=(1.92×106)(25×109)=4.80×1014CQ=It=(1.92\times10^{-6})(25\times10^{-9})=4.80\times10^{-14}\,\text{C}. Hence the number of carriers is N=Q/e=(4.80×1014)/(1.60×1019)=3.0×105N=Q/e=(4.80\times10^{-14})/(1.60\times10^{-19})=3.0\times10^5.

3.13.1.4 · Hall effect sensor

  • A Hall effect sensor produces an output potential difference VHV_{\text{H}} that is proportional to the magnetic flux density through it; the specification requires this transfer behaviour and its uses, not the internal principle of operation.
  • For fixed sensor current and geometry, the Hall voltage obeys VHBV_{\mathrm{H}}\propto B. Reversing the magnetic-field direction reverses the polarity of the Hall-voltage change.
  • A practical Hall sensor may add the Hall voltage to a fixed offset, often near half the supply voltage. Use the change from the zero-field output rather than treating the whole output as VHV_{\mathrm{H}}.
  • The gradient of output voltage against magnetic flux density is the sensitivity. A monotonic calibration gives an unambiguous field or position; saturation or a turning point can make one voltage correspond to more than one input.
  • Hall sensors can measure magnetic field, proximity, position or rotation rate. A common error in speed questions is to forget how many magnets or magnetic sectors produce pulses per revolution.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. The magnetic flux density through a Hall element doubles without changing its current or orientation. State the effect on its Hall voltage.[1 mark]

    Answer

    • The Hall voltage doubles.

    Method: With current and geometry fixed, VHBV_{\mathrm{H}}\propto B. Doubling BB therefore doubles VHV_{\mathrm{H}}.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. A Hall sensor has a zero-field output of 2.500V2.500\,\text{V} and sensitivity 45mV T145\,\text{mV T}^{-1}. Calculate its output for a flux density of 0.18T-0.18\,\text{T}.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • 2.492V2.492\,\text{V}

    Method: The Hall-voltage change is ΔV=(45×103)(0.18)=8.1×103V\Delta V=(45\times10^{-3})(-0.18)=-8.1\times10^{-3}\,\text{V}. Add this signed change to the offset: Vout=2.5000.0081=2.4919VV_{\mathrm{out}}=2.500-0.0081=2.4919\,\text{V}, giving 2.492V2.492\,\text{V}.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A Hall sensor's output changes by 0.180V0.180\,\text{V} in a calibration field of 60mT60\,\text{mT}. In a speed monitor its peak output change is 0.120V0.120\,\text{V}. Six identical magnets on a wheel each produce one pulse, and the pulse frequency is 180Hz180\,\text{Hz}. Determine the peak magnetic flux density at the sensor and the wheel speed in revolutions per minute. Explain how the field calculation uses the Hall effect.[5 marks]

    Answer

    • 40mT40\,\text{mT} and 1.8×103rev min11.8\times10^3\,\text{rev min}^{-1}

    Method: For fixed sensor current and geometry, VHBV_{\mathrm{H}}\propto B. Therefore B=(0.120/0.180)(60mT)=40mTB=(0.120/0.180)(60\,\text{mT})=40\,\text{mT}. Six pulses are produced per revolution, so the rotation frequency is 180/6=30rev s1180/6=30\,\text{rev s}^{-1}. Multiplying by 60s min160\,\text{s min}^{-1} gives 30×60=1.8×103rev min130\times60=1.8\times10^3\,\text{rev min}^{-1}.

3.13.2.1 · Difference between analogue and digital signals

  • An analogue signal varies continuously in time and amplitude. A digital signal uses discrete levels, normally binary 00 and 11, during defined time intervals.
  • Analogue-to-digital conversion samples the signal and assigns each sample to one of 2n2^n quantised levels for an nn-bit code. Quantisation causes an unavoidable rounding error.
  • The sampling frequency must be at least twice the highest information frequency to avoid aliasing. A higher sampling rate records more time detail, while a greater bit depth improves amplitude resolution.
  • Digital pulses can be regenerated, copied and processed without accumulating small amounts of noise at every stage, provided noise has not shifted a pulse across the decision threshold.
  • Higher sampling rate and bit depth increase bit rate, storage and transmission bandwidth. A common error is to claim that digital signals contain no noise or reproduce the original analogue signal exactly.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. State one difference between an analogue signal and a binary digital signal.[1 mark]

    Answer

    • An analogue signal varies continuously, whereas a binary digital signal has two discrete levels.

    Method: The defining contrast is continuous variation for analogue information and discrete allowed levels for digital information; binary uses two such levels.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. An 88-bit converter divides an input range from 00 to 4.8V4.8\,\text{V} into equal quantisation intervals. Calculate the interval width and the maximum quantisation error.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • 18.75mV18.75\,\text{mV} and ±9.38mV\pm9.38\,\text{mV}

    Method: An 88-bit code gives 28=2562^8=256 intervals. Their width is ΔV=4.8/256=0.01875V=18.75mV\Delta V=4.8/256=0.01875\,\text{V}=18.75\,\text{mV}. Rounding to the nearest level gives a maximum error of half an interval, ±ΔV/2=±9.375mV\pm\Delta V/2=\pm9.375\,\text{mV}, or ±9.38mV\pm9.38\,\text{mV}.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A sensor signal contains frequencies up to 4.0kHz4.0\,\text{kHz}. It is sampled at 10kHz10\,\text{kHz} with 1414 bits per sample for 45s45\,\text{s}. Explain whether the sampling rate is sufficient, calculate the uncompressed data size in bits and bytes, and discuss one consequence of reducing the resolution to 88 bits.[5 marks]

    Answer

    • The rate is sufficient; the recording contains 6.3×1066.3\times10^6 bits or 7.9×1057.9\times10^5 bytes, and 88-bit conversion reduces data rate but increases quantisation error.

    Method: The minimum sampling rate is 2fmax=2(4.0)=8.0kHz2f_{\max}=2(4.0)=8.0\,\text{kHz}, so 10kHz10\,\text{kHz} is sufficient. The bit rate is (10×103)(14)=1.40×105bit s1(10\times10^3)(14)=1.40\times10^5\,\text{bit s}^{-1}. In 45s45\,\text{s} the data size is (1.40×105)(45)=6.30×106(1.40\times10^5)(45)=6.30\times10^6 bits. Dividing by 88 gives 7.875×1057.875\times10^5 bytes, or 7.9×1057.9\times10^5 bytes to two significant figures. Reducing to 88 bits gives only 28=2562^8=256 levels instead of 214=163842^{14}=16384, so it lowers bit rate and storage but increases quantisation steps, quantisation noise and loss of amplitude detail.

3.13.3.1 · LC resonance filters

  • At resonance, energy transfers repeatedly between the electric field of the capacitor and the magnetic field of the inductor. The resonant frequency is f0=1/(2πLC)f_0=1/(2\pi\sqrt{LC}).
  • Use LL in henries, CC in farads and f0f_0 in hertz. When rearranging for capacitance, C=1/(4π2f02L)C=1/(4\pi^2f_0^2L).
  • The response of a tuned parallel LC filter is centred on f0f_0. Depending on where the output is taken, resonance can produce a peak or a notch.
  • The bandwidth Δf\Delta f is the separation of the upper and lower half-power frequencies, and the quality factor is Q=f0/ΔfQ=f_0/\Delta f. A larger QQ means a narrower response and greater selectivity.
  • A common error is to use one half-width as Δf\Delta f, or to read the bandwidth at half the peak amplitude rather than the half-power amplitude 1/21/\sqrt{2} of the peak.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. Calculate the resonant frequency of an LC filter containing L=2.0mHL=2.0\,\text{mH} and C=8.0nFC=8.0\,\text{nF}.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • 4.0×104Hz4.0\times10^4\,\text{Hz}

    Method: Convert to SI units: L=2.0×103HL=2.0\times10^{-3}\,\text{H} and C=8.0×109FC=8.0\times10^{-9}\,\text{F}. Then f0=1/[2π(2.0×103)(8.0×109)]=3.98×104Hzf_0=1/[2\pi\sqrt{(2.0\times10^{-3})(8.0\times10^{-9})}]=3.98\times10^4\,\text{Hz}, giving 4.0×104Hz4.0\times10^4\,\text{Hz} to two significant figures.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. A tuned circuit has a response peak at 150kHz150\,\text{kHz}. Its lower and upper half-power frequencies are 143kHz143\,\text{kHz} and 157kHz157\,\text{kHz}. Determine its bandwidth and Q-factor.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • 14kHz14\,\text{kHz} and Q=11Q=11

    Method: The bandwidth is the full separation of the half-power frequencies: Δf=157143=14kHz\Delta f=157-143=14\,\text{kHz}. Hence Q=f0/Δf=150/14=10.7Q=f_0/\Delta f=150/14=10.7, which is 1111 to two significant figures.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A receiver uses a 0.75mH0.75\,\text{mH} inductor in an LC filter tuned to 620kHz620\,\text{kHz}. Its measured half-power frequencies are 609kHz609\,\text{kHz} and 631kHz631\,\text{kHz}. Calculate the required capacitance and Q-factor. The wanted transmission occupies 18kHz18\,\text{kHz} centred on resonance; discuss whether the measured bandwidth is suitable.[5 marks]

    Answer

    • C=88pFC=88\,\text{pF} and Q=28Q=28; the 22kHz22\,\text{kHz} bandwidth passes the full 18kHz18\,\text{kHz} transmission while retaining some selectivity.

    Method: Rearrange the resonance equation: C=1/(4π2f02L)C=1/(4\pi^2f_0^2L). Substitution gives C=1/[4π2(620×103)2(0.75×103)]=8.79×1011F=87.9pFC=1/[4\pi^2(620\times10^3)^2(0.75\times10^{-3})]=8.79\times10^{-11}\,\text{F}=87.9\,\text{pF}, or 88pF88\,\text{pF}. The measured bandwidth is Δf=631609=22kHz\Delta f=631-609=22\,\text{kHz}, so Q=620/22=28.228Q=620/22=28.2\approx28. Because 22kHz>18kHz22\,\text{kHz}>18\,\text{kHz}, the full wanted transmission lies within the half-power bandwidth; the response is only 4kHz4\,\text{kHz} wider, so it retains more selectivity than a much broader filter.

3.13.3.2 · The ideal operational amplifier

  • An ideal operational amplifier has infinite open-loop voltage gain, infinite input impedance and zero output impedance. Infinite input impedance means I+=I=0I_+=I_-=0.
  • With negative feedback and an unsaturated output, the enormous gain makes the differential input voltage negligible, so V+=VV_+=V_-. This is the virtual-short rule, not a physical connection between the inputs.
  • If the non-inverting input is connected to 0V0\,\text{V}, negative feedback holds the inverting input at approximately 0V0\,\text{V}. This node is a virtual earth: it has earth potential but is not connected directly to earth.
  • Zero output impedance means the output voltage is unaffected by the current supplied to an allowed load in the ideal model. The output adjusts as required to maintain the feedback condition.
  • The golden rules I+=I=0I_+=I_-=0 and V+=VV_+=V_- apply only with negative feedback and while the output is not saturated. A common error is to assume that both inputs are always at 0V0\,\text{V}.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. State the current entering either input terminal of an ideal operational amplifier.[1 mark]

    Answer

    • 0A0\,\text{A}

    Method: An ideal operational amplifier has infinite input impedance, so no current enters either input: I+=I=0I_+=I_-=0.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. An ideal operational amplifier has negative feedback, its non-inverting input is connected to 0V0\,\text{V}, and its output is not saturated. State the potential of the inverting input and explain why that point is called a virtual earth.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • The inverting input is at approximately 0V0\,\text{V}; it is held at earth potential by negative feedback and very large gain but is not physically connected to earth.

    Method: For an ideal op amp operating with negative feedback, the very large open-loop gain makes V+VV_+-V_- negligible. Thus V=V+=0VV_-=V_+=0\,\text{V}. The inverting node is therefore at earth potential, but because it has no direct conducting connection to earth it is described as a virtual earth.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. The non-inverting terminal of an ideal op amp is earthed. A +0.80V+0.80\,\text{V} source is connected to the inverting node through 40kΩ40\,\text{k}\Omega, and negative feedback connects the output to that node through 200kΩ200\,\text{k}\Omega. The supply rails are ±6.0V\pm6.0\,\text{V}. Use the ideal-op-amp rules to determine the output voltage and verify that the assumed linear operation is possible.[5 marks]

    Answer

    • 4.0V-4.0\,\text{V}; this lies within the ±6.0V\pm6.0\,\text{V} rails.

    Method: Negative feedback and infinite gain give V=V+=0VV_-=V_+=0\,\text{V}, so the inverting node is a virtual earth. The current from the source to the node is I=(0.800)/(40×103)=20μAI=(0.80-0)/(40\times10^3)=20\,\mu\text{A}. Infinite input impedance means none enters the op amp, so the same current must leave the node through the 200kΩ200\,\text{k}\Omega feedback resistor. Therefore 0Vout=I(200×103)=(20×106)(200×103)=4.0V0-V_{\mathrm{out}}=I(200\times10^3)=(20\times10^{-6})(200\times10^3)=4.0\,\text{V}, giving Vout=4.0VV_{\mathrm{out}}=-4.0\,\text{V}. Since 4.0V-4.0\,\text{V} lies between the 6.0V-6.0\,\text{V} and +6.0V+6.0\,\text{V} rails, the output is not saturated and the linear-feedback assumption is self-consistent.

3.13.4.1 · Operational amplifier: inverting amplifier configuration

  • For an ideal operational amplifier with negative feedback, the two input potentials are equal and no current enters either input. With the non-inverting input earthed, the inverting input is therefore at virtual earth.
  • Applying Kirchhoff's current law at the inverting input gives Vin/Rin=Vout/RfV_{\text{in}}/R_{\text{in}}=-V_{\text{out}}/R_f, so the closed-loop voltage gain is Vout/Vin=Rf/RinV_{\text{out}}/V_{\text{in}}=-R_f/R_{\text{in}}.
  • The minus sign represents a 180180^\circ phase reversal. Resistance ratios set the gain, so both resistances must use the same units.
  • A real output cannot pass its supply-limited saturation levels. A common error is to report the ideal output even when it would be clipped.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. An inverting amplifier has Rin=10kΩR_{\text{in}}=10\,\text{k}\Omega, Rf=47kΩR_f=47\,\text{k}\Omega and Vin=+0.60VV_{\text{in}}=+0.60\,\text{V}. Calculate VoutV_{\text{out}}.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • 2.8V-2.8\,\text{V}

    Method: The gain is Rf/Rin=47/10=4.7-R_f/R_{\text{in}}=-47/10=-4.7. Hence Vout=(4.7)(0.60)=2.82VV_{\text{out}}=(-4.7)(0.60)=-2.82\,\text{V}, which is 2.8V-2.8\,\text{V} to two significant figures.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. The non-inverting input of an ideal operational amplifier is earthed. Its input and feedback resistors are 12kΩ12\,\text{k}\Omega and 68kΩ68\,\text{k}\Omega. Derive the closed-loop gain from currents at the inverting input, then determine the output for Vin=0.45VV_{\text{in}}=-0.45\,\text{V}.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • +2.6V+2.6\,\text{V}

    Method: Negative feedback makes the inverting input a virtual earth, and no current enters the operational amplifier. Therefore Vin/Rin=(0Vout)/RfV_{\text{in}}/R_{\text{in}}=(0-V_{\text{out}})/R_f. Rearranging gives Vout/Vin=Rf/Rin=68/12=5.67V_{\text{out}}/V_{\text{in}}=-R_f/R_{\text{in}}=-68/12=-5.67. Thus Vout=(5.67)(0.45)=+2.55VV_{\text{out}}=(-5.67)(-0.45)=+2.55\,\text{V}, or +2.6V+2.6\,\text{V} to two significant figures.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. An inverting amplifier has Rin=15kΩR_{\text{in}}=15\,\text{k}\Omega and Rf=120kΩR_f=120\,\text{k}\Omega. Its output saturates at ±8.0V\pm8.0\,\text{V}. A sinusoidal input has peak voltage 1.4V1.4\,\text{V}. Determine the ideal output peak, describe the actual output, and calculate the largest input peak that would avoid clipping.[5 marks]

    Answer

    • Ideal peak 11.2V11.2\,\text{V}; the inverted output is clipped at ±8.0V\pm8.0\,\text{V}; maximum unclipped input peak 1.0V1.0\,\text{V}.

    Method: The closed-loop gain is Rf/Rin=120/15=8.0-R_f/R_{\text{in}}=-120/15=-8.0. The ideal output peak is therefore 8.0×1.4=11.2V8.0\times1.4=11.2\,\text{V} and it is inverted relative to the input. Because 11.2V11.2\,\text{V} exceeds both saturation magnitudes, the positive and negative peaks flatten at +8.0V+8.0\,\text{V} and 8.0V-8.0\,\text{V}. At the clipping boundary, 8.0Vin,peak=8.0V8.0|V_{\text{in,peak}}|=8.0\,\text{V}, so the largest unclipped input peak is 1.0V1.0\,\text{V}.

3.13.4.2 · Operational amplifier: non-inverting amplifier configuration

  • The signal is applied to the non-inverting input, so the output has the same polarity as the input.
  • Negative feedback makes V=V+=VinV_-=V_+=V_{\text{in}}. The feedback divider gives V=VoutR1/(R1+Rf)V_-=V_{\text{out}}R_1/(R_1+R_f) and hence Vout/Vin=1+Rf/R1V_{\text{out}}/V_{\text{in}}=1+R_f/R_1.
  • The closed-loop gain is always at least 11 and the ideal input resistance is infinite, so the source supplies negligible input current.
  • Check the calculated output against the saturation levels. A common error is to omit the 11 in the gain or to use the inverting-amplifier minus sign.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. A non-inverting amplifier has R1=10kΩR_1=10\,\text{k}\Omega, Rf=39kΩR_f=39\,\text{k}\Omega and input voltage 0.80V0.80\,\text{V}. Calculate its output voltage.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • 3.9V3.9\,\text{V}

    Method: The gain is 1+Rf/R1=1+39/10=4.91+R_f/R_1=1+39/10=4.9. Therefore Vout=4.9×0.80=3.92VV_{\text{out}}=4.9\times0.80=3.92\,\text{V}, giving 3.9V3.9\,\text{V} to two significant figures.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. In a non-inverting amplifier, R1=8.2kΩR_1=8.2\,\text{k}\Omega joins the inverting input to earth and Rf=33kΩR_f=33\,\text{k}\Omega joins the output to that input. Use the feedback-divider potential to derive the gain and calculate the output when Vin=0.50VV_{\text{in}}=0.50\,\text{V}.[4 marks]

    Answer

    • 2.5V2.5\,\text{V}

    Method: No current enters the ideal input, so RfR_f and R1R_1 form an unloaded divider: V=VoutR1/(R1+Rf)V_-=V_{\text{out}}R_1/(R_1+R_f). Negative feedback gives V=V+=VinV_-=V_+=V_{\text{in}}. Hence Vout/Vin=(R1+Rf)/R1=1+Rf/R1V_{\text{out}}/V_{\text{in}}=(R_1+R_f)/R_1=1+R_f/R_1. The gain is 1+33/8.2=5.021+33/8.2=5.02, so Vout=5.02×0.50=2.51VV_{\text{out}}=5.02\times0.50=2.51\,\text{V}, or 2.5V2.5\,\text{V} to two significant figures.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A non-inverting amplifier uses R1=18kΩR_1=18\,\text{k}\Omega and Rf=82kΩR_f=82\,\text{k}\Omega. Its output saturates at ±11.5V\pm11.5\,\text{V}. Calculate the maximum peak-to-peak sinusoidal input that can be amplified without clipping, and state the corresponding output peak-to-peak voltage.[5 marks]

    Answer

    • Maximum input 4.1V peak-to-peak4.1\,\text{V peak-to-peak}; output 23.0V peak-to-peak23.0\,\text{V peak-to-peak}.

    Method: The gain is 1+82/18=5.561+82/18=5.56. The largest output peak before saturation is 11.5V11.5\,\text{V}, so the largest input peak is 11.5/5.56=2.07V11.5/5.56=2.07\,\text{V}. A peak-to-peak value is twice a peak value, giving an input of 2(2.07)=4.14V peak-to-peak2(2.07)=4.14\,\text{V peak-to-peak}, or 4.1V peak-to-peak4.1\,\text{V peak-to-peak}. The corresponding output spans from 11.5V-11.5\,\text{V} to +11.5V+11.5\,\text{V}, so it is 23.0V peak-to-peak23.0\,\text{V peak-to-peak}.

3.13.4.3 · Operational amplifier: summing amplifier configuration

  • In an inverting summing amplifier the inverting input is at virtual earth, so input ii supplies current Vi/RiV_i/R_i to the summing point.
  • Kirchhoff's current law gives Vout=Rf(V1/R1+V2/R2+)V_{\text{out}}=-R_f(V_1/R_1+V_2/R_2+\cdots). Each input therefore has its own weighting Rf/Ri-R_f/R_i.
  • With matched resistor ratios, the related difference-amplifier configuration gives Vout=(Rf/R1)(V+V)V_{\text{out}}=(R_f/R_1)(V_+-V_-), amplifying the difference between two inputs.
  • Positive and negative input voltages contribute currents in opposite directions; retain their algebraic signs throughout the sum.
  • The calculated ideal sum is still limited by output saturation. A common error is to add voltage magnitudes and lose cancellation between inputs.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. A summing amplifier has Rf=20kΩR_f=20\,\text{k}\Omega. Two inputs of 0.30V0.30\,\text{V} and 0.50V0.50\,\text{V} are each connected through 10kΩ10\,\text{k}\Omega. Calculate the output voltage.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • 1.6V-1.6\,\text{V}

    Method: Use Vout=Rf(V1/R1+V2/R2)V_{\text{out}}=-R_f(V_1/R_1+V_2/R_2). Thus Vout=20(0.30/10+0.50/10)=1.6VV_{\text{out}}=-20(0.30/10+0.50/10)=-1.6\,\text{V} when all resistances are in kΩ\text{k}\Omega.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. A summing amplifier has Rf=60kΩR_f=60\,\text{k}\Omega. Inputs +0.90V+0.90\,\text{V}, 1.20V-1.20\,\text{V} and +0.50V+0.50\,\text{V} are connected through 15kΩ15\,\text{k}\Omega, 30kΩ30\,\text{k}\Omega and 20kΩ20\,\text{k}\Omega, respectively. Determine VoutV_{\text{out}}.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • 2.7V-2.7\,\text{V}

    Method: The input-current terms are 0.90/15=0.0600.90/15=0.060, 1.20/30=0.040-1.20/30=-0.040 and 0.50/20=0.0250.50/20=0.025 in consistent units. Their algebraic sum is 0.0450.045. Therefore Vout=60(0.045)=2.70VV_{\text{out}}=-60(0.045)=-2.70\,\text{V}, or 2.7V-2.7\,\text{V}.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A summing amplifier has Rf=100kΩR_f=100\,\text{k}\Omega and saturates at 10.5V-10.5\,\text{V} on negative output. Inputs +1.20V+1.20\,\text{V}, 0.60V-0.60\,\text{V} and +1.50V+1.50\,\text{V} pass through 12kΩ12\,\text{k}\Omega, 30kΩ30\,\text{k}\Omega and 20kΩ20\,\text{k}\Omega. Calculate the ideal output, state the actual output, and find the value to which the third input must be reduced to put the amplifier just at the saturation boundary.[6 marks]

    Answer

    • Ideal output 15.5V-15.5\,\text{V}; actual output 10.5V-10.5\,\text{V}; third input 0.50V0.50\,\text{V}.

    Method: The first two current terms are 1.20/12=0.1001.20/12=0.100 and 0.60/30=0.020-0.60/30=-0.020 in consistent units; the third is 1.50/20=0.0751.50/20=0.075. Hence Vout,ideal=100(0.1000.020+0.075)=15.5VV_{\text{out,ideal}}=-100(0.100-0.020+0.075)=-15.5\,\text{V}. The output therefore saturates at 10.5V-10.5\,\text{V}. At the boundary the current-term sum must be 10.5/100=0.10510.5/100=0.105. If the reduced third input is V3V_3, then 0.1000.020+V3/20=0.1050.100-0.020+V_3/20=0.105, so V3/20=0.025V_3/20=0.025 and V3=0.50VV_3=0.50\,\text{V}.

3.13.4.4 · Real operational amplifiers

  • Real operational amplifiers have finite open-loop gain and input resistance, non-zero output resistance, limited output voltage and a frequency-dependent response.
  • For a given device, closed-loop gain multiplied by bandwidth is approximately constant: GfB=gain–bandwidth productGf_B=\text{gain--bandwidth product}. Increasing gain therefore reduces usable bandwidth.
  • Slew rate is the greatest possible dVout/dt|\mathrm{d}V_{\text{out}}/\mathrm{d}t|. A sine wave of peak VpV_p and frequency ff requires a maximum rate 2πfVp2\pi fV_p.
  • Check both bandwidth and slew rate, as well as saturation. A common error is to conclude that a signal is undistorted after testing only one limitation.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. An operational amplifier has a gain--bandwidth product of 3.0MHz3.0\,\text{MHz}. Calculate its bandwidth when its closed-loop voltage gain is 3030.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • 1.0×105Hz1.0\times10^5\,\text{Hz}

    Method: Using GfB=3.0×106HzGf_B=3.0\times10^6\,\text{Hz}, the bandwidth is fB=(3.0×106)/30=1.0×105Hzf_B=(3.0\times10^6)/30=1.0\times10^5\,\text{Hz}.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. A real operational amplifier has slew rate 1.5Vμs11.5\,\text{V}\,\mu\text{s}^{-1}. Determine whether it can produce an undistorted sine wave of frequency 80kHz80\,\text{kHz} and peak output 4.0V4.0\,\text{V}. Also calculate the greatest frequency allowed by the slew rate at this peak voltage.[4 marks]

    Answer

    • No; the required slew rate is 2.0Vμs12.0\,\text{V}\,\mu\text{s}^{-1} and the maximum frequency is 60kHz60\,\text{kHz}.

    Method: For a sine wave, the maximum gradient is 2πfVp=2π(80×103)(4.0)=2.01×106V s1=2.01Vμs12\pi fV_p=2\pi(80\times10^3)(4.0)=2.01\times10^6\,\text{V s}^{-1}=2.01\,\text{V}\,\mu\text{s}^{-1}. This exceeds 1.5Vμs11.5\,\text{V}\,\mu\text{s}^{-1}, so slew-rate distortion occurs. The limiting frequency is f=SR/(2πVp)=(1.5×106)/(2π×4.0)=5.97×104Hzf=\text{SR}/(2\pi V_p)=(1.5\times10^6)/(2\pi\times4.0)=5.97\times10^4\,\text{Hz}, or 60kHz60\,\text{kHz} to two significant figures.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. An operational amplifier has gain--bandwidth product 4.0MHz4.0\,\text{MHz} and slew rate 0.80Vμs10.80\,\text{V}\,\mu\text{s}^{-1}. It is used at closed-loop gain 2525 to produce a 60kHz60\,\text{kHz} sine wave whose ideal output peak is 3.0V3.0\,\text{V}. Test both frequency limitations and calculate the largest undistorted output peak at this frequency.[6 marks]

    Answer

    • The 160kHz160\,\text{kHz} bandwidth is sufficient, but the required 1.1Vμs11.1\,\text{V}\,\mu\text{s}^{-1} exceeds the slew rate; maximum undistorted peak 2.1V2.1\,\text{V}.

    Method: The closed-loop bandwidth is (4.0×106)/25=1.60×105Hz=160kHz(4.0\times10^6)/25=1.60\times10^5\,\text{Hz}=160\,\text{kHz}, so 60kHz60\,\text{kHz} is inside the small-signal bandwidth. The required slew rate is 2πfVp=2π(60×103)(3.0)=1.13×106V s1=1.13Vμs12\pi fV_p=2\pi(60\times10^3)(3.0)=1.13\times10^6\,\text{V s}^{-1}=1.13\,\text{V}\,\mu\text{s}^{-1}, which exceeds the available rate. Slew rate is therefore the active limitation. Rearranging gives Vp,max=SR/(2πf)=(0.80×106)/(2π×60×103)=2.12VV_{p,\max}=\text{SR}/(2\pi f)=(0.80\times10^6)/(2\pi\times60\times10^3)=2.12\,\text{V}, or 2.1V2.1\,\text{V}.

3.13.5.1 · Combinational logic

  • A combinational circuit's output depends only on its present inputs. Translate between Boolean expressions, gate networks and truth tables systematically.
  • Use A\overline{A} for NOT, ABA\cdot B for AND and A+BA+B for OR. EOR is 11 only when its two inputs differ.
  • NAND is a universal gate: A=A NANDA\overline{A}=A\operatorname{\ NAND}A, and repeated NAND operations can construct AND, OR and any larger logic function.
  • List binary input combinations in a fixed order and evaluate intermediate columns before the final output. A common error is to treat Boolean ++ as ordinary addition.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. For the Boolean function Y=ABY=A\cdot\overline{B}, state the four values of YY for inputs AB=00,01,10,11AB=00,01,10,11 in that order.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • 0,0,1,00,0,1,0

    Method: When A=0A=0, the AND output is 00 for both values of BB. For AB=10AB=10, both AA and B\overline{B} are 11, so Y=1Y=1. For AB=11AB=11, B=0\overline{B}=0, so Y=0Y=0. The ordered outputs are therefore 0,0,1,00,0,1,0.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. A two-input circuit must output 11 for AB=01AB=01 and AB=10AB=10, but 00 for AB=00AB=00 and AB=11AB=11. Identify the single gate that performs this function and write an equivalent Boolean expression using only AND, OR and NOT.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • EOR gate; Y=AB+ABY=\overline{A}B+A\overline{B}.

    Method: The output is 11 exactly when the inputs differ, which defines EOR. The row 0101 is selected by AB\overline{A}B and the row 1010 by ABA\overline{B}. OR combines the two mutually exclusive cases, giving Y=AB+ABY=\overline{A}B+A\overline{B}.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A control output is Y=(A+B)CY=(A+B)\cdot\overline{C}. Construct its eight-row truth-table output with ABCABC in ascending binary order from 000000 to 111111, then describe a NAND-only implementation.[6 marks]

    Answer

    • Outputs 0,0,1,0,1,0,1,00,0,1,0,1,0,1,0. A NAND-only construction is P=A NANDAP=A\operatorname{\ NAND}A, Q=B NANDBQ=B\operatorname{\ NAND}B, R=P NANDQR=P\operatorname{\ NAND}Q, S=C NANDCS=C\operatorname{\ NAND}C, T=R NANDST=R\operatorname{\ NAND}S, Y=T NANDTY=T\operatorname{\ NAND}T.

    Method: The factor C\overline{C} makes every row with C=1C=1 give Y=0Y=0. When C=0C=0, the output equals A+BA+B, giving 0,1,1,10,1,1,1 for AB=00,01,10,11AB=00,01,10,11. In the stated row order the outputs are 0,0,1,0,1,0,1,00,0,1,0,1,0,1,0. For NAND-only logic, PP and QQ invert AA and BB. Then R=AB=A+BR=\overline{\overline{A}\cdot\overline{B}}=A+B by De Morgan's law. S=CS=\overline{C}. The gate producing TT forms RS\overline{R\cdot S}, and the final self-connected NAND inverts it, so Y=RS=(A+B)CY=R\cdot S=(A+B)\overline{C}.

3.13.5.2 · Sequential logic

  • A sequential circuit has memory: its output depends on the present input and its previous state. A clock controls state changes, while reset forces a defined starting state.
  • An nn-stage binary counter has 2n2^n states. A BCD counter runs through decimal 00 to 99 before returning to 00.
  • A Johnson counter with nn stages has 2n2n distinct states. The inverted final output is fed back to the first stage and the pattern advances on clock edges.
  • A modulo-nn counter can be made by decoding state nn and driving reset, leaving states 00 to n1n-1. State the bit order explicitly; a common error is to confuse decimal count with its binary output.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. A three-bit up-counter is reset to 000000. State its output after five clock pulses, writing the most significant bit first.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • 101101

    Method: The counter advances once per pulse: 000001010011100101000\to001\to010\to011\to100\to101. After five pulses its decimal count is 55, which is binary 101101.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. State the number of distinct states of a four-stage Johnson counter and of a four-bit BCD counter. A BCD counter receives a 1.20kHz1.20\,\text{kHz} clock; determine the rate at which it completes full count cycles.[4 marks]

    Answer

    • Johnson counter: 88 states; BCD counter: 1010 states; BCD cycle rate 120Hz120\,\text{Hz}.

    Method: An nn-stage Johnson counter has 2n2n states, so four stages give 88. BCD represents decimal digits 00 to 99, so it has 1010 states. One full BCD cycle requires 1010 clock pulses, hence the cycle rate is 1.20×103/10=120Hz1.20\times10^3/10=120\,\text{Hz}.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A three-bit up-counter is converted to a modulo-66 counter by decoding one state to reset it. Identify the decoded reset state, list the stable count sequence, determine the output after 5353 pulses from reset, and calculate the cycle rate for a 24kHz24\,\text{kHz} clock.[6 marks]

    Answer

    • Reset on 110110; sequence 000,001,010,011,100,101000,001,010,011,100,101; after 5353 pulses the output is 101101; cycle rate 4.0kHz4.0\,\text{kHz}.

    Method: Modulo 66 requires six stable states representing decimal 00 to 55. Decode the next state, decimal 6=1106=110, and use it to reset immediately to 000000. The stable sequence is therefore 000,001,010,011,100,101000,001,010,011,100,101 and then back to 000000. Since 53=8×6+553=8\times6+5, the state after 5353 pulses is the state five steps after reset, 101101. Each cycle uses six pulses, so its repetition rate is (24×103)/6=4.0×103Hz=4.0kHz(24\times10^3)/6=4.0\times10^3\,\text{Hz}=4.0\,\text{kHz}.

3.13.5.3 · Astables

  • An astable has no stable state: it oscillates continuously and can supply clock pulses without an external trigger.
  • Period and frequency obey f=1/Tf=1/T. Duty cycle is thigh/T×100%t_{\text{high}}/T\times100\%, and mark-to-space ratio is thigh:tlowt_{\text{high}}:t_{\text{low}}.
  • An external resistor-capacitor network sets the charging and discharging times. For a common astable design that charges exponentially between VS/3V_S/3 and 2VS/32V_S/3, each threshold interval is RCln2RC\ln2 — no particular chip or circuit is required by the specification, so questions supply the thresholds.
  • Use the actual threshold interval rather than assuming the time constant equals the switching time. A common error is to include only charging time when finding a full period.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. An astable produces a pulse train of period 2.5ms2.5\,\text{ms} with a high pulse lasting 1.0ms1.0\,\text{ms}. Calculate the frequency and duty cycle.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • 400Hz400\,\text{Hz}; 40%40\%

    Method: The frequency is f=1/T=1/(2.5×103)=400Hzf=1/T=1/(2.5\times10^{-3})=400\,\text{Hz}. The duty cycle is (1.0/2.5)×100%=40%(1.0/2.5)\times100\%=40\%.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. In an astable, a capacitor charges through 47kΩ47\,\text{k}\Omega from VS/3V_S/3 to 2VS/32V_S/3 and then discharges through the same resistance over the reverse threshold interval. The capacitance is 22nF22\,\text{nF}. Using exponential charging, determine the period and frequency.[4 marks]

    Answer

    • 1.43ms1.43\,\text{ms}; 698Hz698\,\text{Hz}

    Method: During charging, V=VS(VSV0)et/RCV=V_S-(V_S-V_0)e^{-t/RC}. With V0=VS/3V_0=V_S/3 and V=2VS/3V=2V_S/3, 1/3=(2/3)et/RC1/3=(2/3)e^{-t/RC}, so et/RC=1/2e^{-t/RC}=1/2 and t=RCln2t=RC\ln2. The discharge over the reverse interval has the same duration, so T=2RCln2=2(47×103)(22×109)ln2=1.433×103sT=2RC\ln2=2(47\times10^3)(22\times10^{-9})\ln2=1.433\times10^{-3}\,\text{s}. Hence f=1/T=697.8Hzf=1/T=697.8\,\text{Hz}, giving 1.43ms1.43\,\text{ms} and 698Hz698\,\text{Hz}.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. An astable capacitor switches between VS/3V_S/3 and 2VS/32V_S/3, with the output high while the capacitor charges. It charges through 82kΩ82\,\text{k}\Omega, discharges through 33kΩ33\,\text{k}\Omega, and has capacitance 15nF15\,\text{nF}. Calculate the high time, low time, frequency, duty cycle and mark-to-space ratio, taking each threshold time as RCln2RC\ln2.[6 marks]

    Answer

    • thigh=0.85mst_{\text{high}}=0.85\,\text{ms}, tlow=0.34mst_{\text{low}}=0.34\,\text{ms}, f=8.4×102Hzf=8.4\times10^2\,\text{Hz}, duty cycle 71%71\%, mark-to-space ratio 2.5:12.5:1.

    Method: The high interval is the charge time: thigh=(82×103)(15×109)ln2=8.53×104s=0.853mst_{\text{high}}=(82\times10^3)(15\times10^{-9})\ln2=8.53\times10^{-4}\,\text{s}=0.853\,\text{ms}. The low interval is tlow=(33×103)(15×109)ln2=3.43×104s=0.343mst_{\text{low}}=(33\times10^3)(15\times10^{-9})\ln2=3.43\times10^{-4}\,\text{s}=0.343\,\text{ms}. Thus T=1.196msT=1.196\,\text{ms} and f=1/T=836Hzf=1/T=836\,\text{Hz}, or 8.4×102Hz8.4\times10^2\,\text{Hz}. The duty cycle is 0.853/1.196×100%=71.3%0.853/1.196\times100\%=71.3\%, or 71%71\%. The mark-to-space ratio is 0.853:0.343=2.48:10.853:0.343=2.48:1, or 2.5:12.5:1.

3.13.6.1 · Principles of communication systems

  • A real-time communication system can be represented by input transducer, transmitter, transmission channel, receiver and output transducer.
  • The input transducer converts the message into an electrical signal; the transmitter prepares it for the channel, which carries it to the receiver.
  • The receiver selects and recovers the information signal, and the output transducer converts it into the required final form.
  • State the purpose of each stage rather than circuit detail. A common error is to describe the carrier as the information itself instead of the wave altered to carry information.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. Place these stages of a real-time communication system in order: receiver, output transducer, transmission channel, input transducer, transmitter.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • Input transducer, transmitter, transmission channel, receiver, output transducer.

    Method: The message is first converted into an electrical signal by the input transducer. The transmitter sends a suitable signal through the channel. The receiver recovers the information and the output transducer converts it to the required output, so the stated order follows.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. In a live radio link, explain the different purposes of the transmitter, transmission channel and receiver.[3 marks]

    Answer

    • The transmitter converts the information into a suitable signal and supplies it to the channel; the channel carries the signal; the receiver selects the wanted signal and recovers its information.

    Method: Award one linked purpose per stage: the transmitter prepares the message for transmission, for example by using it to modulate a carrier and amplifying the result; the channel is the physical medium through which the signal travels; the receiver selects the required transmission from other signals and noise, then demodulates it to recover the information.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A remote weather station sends a continuously updated temperature reading to a control room. Describe a complete real-time communication system for this task, giving the purpose of each block and explaining where unwanted noise can affect the recovered reading.[5 marks]

    Answer

    • A temperature sensor produces an electrical information signal; a transmitter encodes or modulates and launches it into a channel; a receiver selects and recovers it; a display converts it to a readable output, while channel noise can alter the received signal.

    Method: The input transducer is a temperature sensor that converts temperature into an electrical information signal. The transmitter prepares that signal for the chosen channel, for example by encoding it or modulating a carrier, and supplies sufficient power. The wire, fibre or radio path is the transmission channel. Noise or interference added mainly in the channel changes the received waveform and can reduce signal-to-noise ratio. The receiver selects the wanted signal and decodes or demodulates it. Finally, the output stage drives a display so the recovered information is presented as a temperature. Continuous repetition keeps the result real time.

3.13.6.2 · Transmission media

  • Transmission paths include metal wire, optical fibre and electromagnetic waves such as radio and microwave. Compare them using data rate, attenuation, cost and security.
  • Typical ranges are about 150150--300kHz300\,\text{kHz} for longwave, 33--30MHz30\,\text{MHz} for shortwave and 22--100GHz100\,\text{GHz} for microwave links.
  • Long-wavelength radio can diffract around Earth's surface as a ground wave; suitable sky waves can be refracted or reflected by the ionosphere to reach beyond the horizon.
  • Microwaves are approximately line-of-sight and are used for terrestrial links and satellites. Satellite uplinks and downlinks use different frequencies to prevent receiver de-sensing.
  • Optical fibre offers high data capacity and is difficult to intercept, but installation and optical interfaces add cost. A common error is to claim that all radio waves travel only in straight lines.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. Identify a suitable transmission medium for a high-data-rate link that should be difficult to intercept, and give one reason for your choice.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • Optical fibre, because it has high bandwidth and does not radiate a signal that can easily be intercepted.

    Method: Optical fibre supports a high data rate because of its large available bandwidth. Light remains guided within the fibre, so interception generally requires physical access and is easier to detect than receiving a broadcast radio signal.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. Explain two ways in which a radio transmission can reach a receiver beyond the horizon, and relate each way to the wave behaviour involved.[4 marks]

    Answer

    • A long-wavelength ground wave diffracts around Earth's surface; a sky wave is refracted or reflected by the ionosphere back towards Earth.

    Method: A ground wave of sufficiently long wavelength undergoes appreciable diffraction, so it follows the curvature of Earth's surface rather than being blocked at the geometric horizon. Alternatively, a sky wave is directed upwards and is refracted through, or described as reflected by, ionised layers in the atmosphere so that it returns to Earth at a distant point. Each route therefore avoids a purely line-of-sight path by a different wave process.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A signal travels from one ground station to another through a geostationary satellite 3.60×107m3.60\times10^7\,\text{m} above Earth. Treat both path sections as vertical and use c=3.00×108m s1c=3.00\times10^8\,\text{m s}^{-1}. Calculate the minimum one-way delay, explain why uplink and downlink frequencies differ, and compare this link with optical fibre for data rate and security.[6 marks]

    Answer

    • 0.240s0.240\,\text{s}; different frequencies prevent receiver de-sensing; fibre generally offers high data rate and greater physical security than a broadcast satellite link.

    Method: The minimum path is ground to satellite and back to ground, so d=2(3.60×107)=7.20×107md=2(3.60\times10^7)=7.20\times10^7\,\text{m}. The delay is t=d/c=(7.20×107)/(3.00×108)=0.240st=d/c=(7.20\times10^7)/(3.00\times10^8)=0.240\,\text{s}. A satellite transmits the downlink while receiving the much weaker uplink; separating their frequencies prevents its own strong transmission from overwhelming, or de-sensing, the receiver. Satellite microwave links cover large areas without laying cable but broadcast through free space and have limited allocated bandwidth. Optical fibre commonly provides a higher data rate and confines the signal to a physical cable, making interception harder, although laying that cable can be costly.

3.13.6.3 · Time-division multiplexing

  • Time-division multiplexing shares one transmission path by assigning each input channel a recurring time slot within every frame.
  • One frame normally contains one slot from each channel, so frame rate equals the sampling rate per channel and slot rate equals number of channels multiplied by frame rate.
  • The raw bit rate is frame rate multiplied by all bits in one frame, including synchronisation or control bits as well as data bits.
  • The receiver uses timing or synchronisation information to demultiplex the slots. A common error is to omit overhead bits or multiply by the number of channels twice.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. Four channels share a time-division multiplexed link. Each frame contains one 88-bit slot from every channel. State the number of slots and the number of data bits in one frame.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • 44 slots; 3232 data bits

    Method: There is one slot per channel, so each frame has 44 slots. Each slot contains 88 bits, giving 4×8=324\times8=32 data bits per frame.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. Six signals are each sampled at 8.0kHz8.0\,\text{kHz} and represented by 1010 bits per sample. One sample from each signal forms a TDM frame with no overhead. Calculate the frame rate, slot rate and transmitted bit rate.[4 marks]

    Answer

    • Frame rate 8.0kHz8.0\,\text{kHz}; slot rate 48kslot s148\,\text{kslot s}^{-1}; bit rate 480kbit s1480\,\text{kbit s}^{-1}.

    Method: Every frame must carry one new sample from each channel, so the frame rate equals the sampling rate, 8.0kframe s18.0\,\text{kframe s}^{-1}. There are six slots per frame, hence the slot rate is 6(8.0×103)=4.8×104slot s16(8.0\times10^3)=4.8\times10^4\,\text{slot s}^{-1}. Each slot contains 1010 bits, so the bit rate is (4.8×104)(10)=4.8×105bit s1=480kbit s1(4.8\times10^4)(10)=4.8\times10^5\,\text{bit s}^{-1}=480\,\text{kbit s}^{-1}.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A TDM system carries 2424 channels, each sampled at 12.0kHz12.0\,\text{kHz} with 1212 bits per sample. Every frame also contains 88 synchronisation bits. Calculate the frame rate, data-slot rate, total bits per frame and transmitted bit rate. Decide whether a 4.00Mbit s14.00\,\text{Mbit s}^{-1} link has sufficient capacity.[6 marks]

    Answer

    • Frame rate 12.0kHz12.0\,\text{kHz}; data-slot rate 288kslot s1288\,\text{kslot s}^{-1}; 296296 bits per frame; bit rate 3.55Mbit s13.55\,\text{Mbit s}^{-1}; the link is sufficient.

    Method: One sample per channel is sent in each frame, so the frame rate is 12.0×103frame s112.0\times10^3\,\text{frame s}^{-1}. With 2424 data slots per frame, the data-slot rate is 24(12.0×103)=2.88×105slot s124(12.0\times10^3)=2.88\times10^5\,\text{slot s}^{-1}. Data occupy 24×12=28824\times12=288 bits and synchronisation adds 88, giving 296296 bits per frame. The bit rate is 296(12.0×103)=3.552×106bit s1=3.55Mbit s1296(12.0\times10^3)=3.552\times10^6\,\text{bit s}^{-1}=3.55\,\text{Mbit s}^{-1}. Since 3.55<4.003.55<4.00, the link is sufficient, with about 0.45Mbit s10.45\,\text{Mbit s}^{-1} spare capacity.

3.13.6.4 · Amplitude (AM) and frequency modulation (FM) techniques

  • Modulation changes a high-frequency carrier in accordance with a lower-frequency information signal. AM varies carrier amplitude; FM varies instantaneous carrier frequency while amplitude remains approximately constant.
  • For a single information frequency fmf_m, simple AM requires bandwidth 2fm2f_m. Simple FM requires approximately 2(Δf+fm)2(\Delta f+f_m), where Δf\Delta f is the maximum frequency deviation.
  • On a time graph, carrier frequency comes from the rapid oscillations and information frequency from the slower envelope repetition in AM or the frequency-change pattern in FM.
  • FM generally gives better immunity to amplitude noise but uses more bandwidth, so fewer channels fit a fixed allocation. A common error is to use only one AM sideband and quote bandwidth fmf_m.

Tier 1 · Easy

  1. 1. An AM transmission carries a highest information frequency of 6.0kHz6.0\,\text{kHz}. Calculate its minimum bandwidth.[2 marks]

    Answer

    • 12kHz12\,\text{kHz}

    Method: Simple AM has two sidebands, so its bandwidth is 2fm=2(6.0kHz)=12kHz2f_m=2(6.0\,\text{kHz})=12\,\text{kHz}.

Tier 2 · Standard

  1. 1. A signal with maximum information frequency 8.0kHz8.0\,\text{kHz} frequency-modulates a carrier with maximum deviation 25kHz25\,\text{kHz}. Calculate the FM bandwidth and the bandwidth if the same information used AM.[4 marks]

    Answer

    • FM 66kHz66\,\text{kHz}; AM 16kHz16\,\text{kHz}

    Method: For FM, B=2(Δf+fm)=2(25+8.0)kHz=66kHzB=2(\Delta f+f_m)=2(25+8.0)\,\text{kHz}=66\,\text{kHz}. For AM, B=2fm=2(8.0kHz)=16kHzB=2f_m=2(8.0\,\text{kHz})=16\,\text{kHz}.

Tier 3 · Hard

  1. 1. A broadcast signal has maximum information frequency 15kHz15\,\text{kHz}. In FM its maximum frequency deviation is 75kHz75\,\text{kHz}. Calculate the FM and AM bandwidths and hence the greatest ideal number of non-overlapping channels of each type in a 900kHz900\,\text{kHz} allocation. Explain one signal-to-noise advantage and one channel-usage disadvantage of FM.[6 marks]

    Answer

    • FM bandwidth 180kHz180\,\text{kHz} and 55 channels; AM bandwidth 30kHz30\,\text{kHz} and 3030 channels. FM better rejects amplitude noise but accommodates fewer channels.

    Method: For FM, B=2(Δf+fm)=2(75+15)kHz=180kHzB=2(\Delta f+f_m)=2(75+15)\,\text{kHz}=180\,\text{kHz}. The ideal channel count is 900/180=5900/180=5. For AM, B=2fm=2(15)=30kHzB=2f_m=2(15)=30\,\text{kHz}, so 900/30=30900/30=30 ideal channels. In FM the information is carried by frequency changes, so amplitude-limiting can remove much amplitude noise without removing the information, giving a better signal-to-noise performance. Its larger bandwidth, however, means far fewer stations fit the same allocation. These ideal counts ignore guard bands.