4.3 Infection and response — coverage pack
13 specification leaves · notes, questions, answers and worked methods
4.3.1.1 · Communicable (infectious) diseases
- Pathogens are microorganisms that cause infectious disease; they may be viruses, bacteria, protists or fungi and may infect animals or plants.
- Pathogens can spread by direct contact, through water or through the air, so prevention must interrupt the relevant route of transmission.
- Bacteria and viruses may reproduce rapidly inside the body: bacteria may release toxins that damage tissues, whereas viruses reproduce inside cells and damage those cells.
- A common error is to suggest one control for every disease; effective controls depend on whether transmission is by contact, contaminated water, airborne droplets or another route.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. Define a pathogen and name one group of pathogen.[2 marks]
Answer
- A pathogen is a microorganism that causes infectious disease.
- Any one from viruses, bacteria, protists and fungi.
Method: Give the complete definition for one mark, then select any one of the four groups listed in the specification for the second mark.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Compare how bacteria and viruses can make a person ill after entering the body.[4 marks]
Answer
- Both may reproduce rapidly inside the body.
- Bacteria may produce toxins.
- The toxins damage tissues and make the person feel ill.
- Viruses reproduce inside body cells and damage those cells.
Method: Start with the shared feature of rapid reproduction, then distinguish the mechanisms: bacterial toxins damage tissues, while viral reproduction takes place inside and damages host cells.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. A disease spreads when infected people cough near others and when unwashed hands touch shared surfaces. Explain both routes of transmission and suggest a suitable way to reduce each route.[6 marks]
Answer
- Coughing releases pathogen-containing droplets into the air.
- Other people may inhale the droplets.
- Covering coughs, improving ventilation or reducing close contact can reduce airborne spread.
- Pathogens can pass by direct contact through contaminated hands or surfaces.
- Handwashing and cleaning shared surfaces can reduce contact transmission.
- The controls reduce the chance that pathogens move from an infected host to a new host.
Method: Treat the two observations separately. Link coughing to airborne droplets and inhalation, and link hands and surfaces to contact transmission. Give a control matched to each route and explain that it interrupts transfer between hosts.
4.3.1.2 · Viral diseases
- Measles causes fever and a red skin rash, can be fatal if complications arise, and spreads when droplets from coughs or sneezes are inhaled; vaccination reduces risk.
- HIV may first cause a flu-like illness and, unless controlled by antiretroviral drugs, attacks immune cells until late-stage infection or AIDS leaves the body unable to deal with other infections or cancers.
- HIV spreads through sexual contact or exchange of body fluids such as blood, whereas tobacco mosaic virus infects plants and produces a mosaic pattern of leaf discolouration.
- Tobacco mosaic virus reduces photosynthesis and therefore plant growth; a common error is to describe the mosaic pattern as merely cosmetic rather than linking it to reduced photosynthesis.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. Name the viral disease associated with each sign: a red skin rash in a child, and a mosaic pattern on plant leaves.[2 marks]
Answer
- Red skin rash: measles.
- Mosaic leaf pattern: tobacco mosaic virus (TMV).
Method: Match the characteristic red rash to measles and the named mosaic leaf symptom to tobacco mosaic virus.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Explain why a tomato plant infected with tobacco mosaic virus may grow less than an uninfected plant.[3 marks]
Answer
- TMV causes a mosaic pattern of discolouration on the leaves.
- The discoloured leaves carry out less photosynthesis.
- Less glucose is produced for processes needed for growth, so growth is reduced.
Method: Build a causal chain from the visible leaf symptom to reduced photosynthesis and then to reduced production of material needed for plant growth.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. Compare measles and HIV in terms of transmission, effects on the body and one way each disease can be controlled.[6 marks]
Answer
- Measles spreads when droplets from coughs or sneezes are inhaled.
- It causes fever and a red skin rash and may be fatal if complications occur.
- Vaccination can prevent measles.
- HIV spreads by sexual contact or exchange of body fluids such as blood.
- HIV attacks immune cells and may progress to AIDS, leaving the body unable to deal with other infections or cancers.
- Antiretroviral drugs can control HIV, and avoiding exchange of infected body fluids reduces transmission.
Method: Organise the comparison into three matched categories. For measles, link droplets, its characteristic symptoms and vaccination. For HIV, link body fluids, progressive immune-system damage and control by antiretroviral drugs or prevention of fluid exchange.
4.3.1.3 · Bacterial diseases
- Salmonella food poisoning is caused by bacteria ingested in contaminated food or food prepared in unhygienic conditions.
- Salmonella bacteria and their toxins can cause fever, abdominal cramps, vomiting and diarrhoea; UK poultry are vaccinated to help control its spread.
- Gonorrhoea is a bacterial sexually transmitted disease that may cause a thick yellow or green discharge and pain when urinating, and it spreads by sexual contact.
- Gonorrhoea can be controlled with suitable antibiotics and barrier contraception such as condoms, but many strains are resistant to penicillin, so it is wrong to assume that any antibiotic will cure it.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. State one symptom of Salmonella food poisoning and one symptom of gonorrhoea.[2 marks]
Answer
- Salmonella: fever, abdominal cramps, vomiting or diarrhoea.
- Gonorrhoea: a thick yellow or green discharge from the vagina or penis, or pain when urinating.
Method: Choose one accepted symptom from each disease, keeping food-poisoning symptoms separate from the characteristic gonorrhoea symptoms.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Explain how vaccinating poultry and hygienic food preparation can reduce the spread of Salmonella to people.[4 marks]
Answer
- Vaccinating poultry reduces Salmonella infection in the birds.
- This reduces the chance that poultry food products contain the bacteria.
- Hygienic preparation reduces contamination or transfer of bacteria onto food.
- Both measures reduce the chance that people ingest Salmonella bacteria.
Method: Cover control at two stages: vaccination reduces the bacterial source in poultry, while hygiene reduces transfer during food preparation. Link both controls to a lower chance of people ingesting the pathogen.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. A patient with gonorrhoea is infected by a strain resistant to penicillin. Explain why penicillin may fail and how treatment plus barrier contraception can reduce disease and transmission.[5 marks]
Answer
- A penicillin-resistant strain is not killed by penicillin.
- A different antibiotic that is effective against the strain may be needed.
- Successful antibiotic treatment removes or kills the infective bacteria in the patient.
- A condom reduces sexual contact and exchange of infected fluids.
- Using both measures treats the existing infection and reduces spread to new hosts.
Method: Separate failure of the unsuitable antibiotic from the two controls. Resistance explains why penicillin does not kill this strain; a suitable antibiotic targets the infection, while a condom interrupts sexual transmission.
4.3.1.4 · Fungal diseases
- Rose black spot is a fungal disease in which purple or black spots develop on leaves, which may then turn yellow and drop early.
- Loss and damage of leaves reduce photosynthesis, so the infected rose has less material available for growth.
- Rose black spot spreads through the environment in water or by wind.
- Fungicides and removing and destroying affected leaves can control rose black spot; simply removing leaves without destroying them may leave fungal material able to spread.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. Name the pathogen group that causes rose black spot and state one visible symptom.[2 marks]
Answer
- It is caused by a fungus.
- Purple or black leaf spots, yellowing leaves or leaves dropping early.
Method: Identify the disease as fungal, then give one of the leaf symptoms stated in the specification.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Explain why rose black spot can reduce the growth of an infected plant.[3 marks]
Answer
- The fungus damages leaves and can make them drop early.
- The plant has less healthy leaf area for photosynthesis.
- Less photosynthesis means less glucose is made for growth.
Method: Link the observed leaf damage to a smaller photosynthesising surface and then to reduced glucose production and growth.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. A gardener finds rose black spot on several plants during wet, windy weather. Explain why the disease may spread quickly and propose a control programme.[5 marks]
Answer
- The fungal disease can spread in water and by wind.
- Wet, windy conditions can therefore transfer the pathogen between leaves or plants.
- Remove affected leaves to reduce the source of infection.
- Destroy the removed leaves so the fungus is not left nearby to spread.
- Use an appropriate fungicide to treat the plants and reduce further infection.
Method: Use both environmental clues to explain the spread route. A complete programme removes infected material, destroys it rather than leaving it near the plants, and uses fungicide as the second specified control.
4.3.1.5 · Protist diseases
- Malaria is caused by protist pathogens and produces recurrent episodes of fever; the disease can be fatal.
- The malarial protist has a life cycle that includes a mosquito, which acts as a vector carrying the pathogen between hosts.
- Mosquito nets reduce transmission by preventing infected mosquitos from biting people.
- Preventing mosquitos from breeding reduces the vector population; a common error is to call the mosquito the pathogen rather than the vector.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. State the type of pathogen that causes malaria and name its vector.[2 marks]
Answer
- The pathogen is a protist.
- The vector is a mosquito.
Method: Distinguish the disease-causing organism from the carrier: the protist is the pathogen and the mosquito is the vector in its life cycle.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Explain how sleeping under mosquito nets can reduce the spread of malaria.[3 marks]
Answer
- Mosquitos act as vectors for the malarial protist.
- A net reduces the chance that a mosquito bites a person.
- This reduces transfer of the protist between the mosquito and human hosts.
Method: Name the vector, state how the net changes contact between vector and person, and link fewer bites to less pathogen transmission.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. A region gives families mosquito nets and removes pools of standing water. Explain why the combined strategy should control malaria better than either action alone.[5 marks]
Answer
- Mosquitos are vectors in the malarial protist's life cycle.
- Nets reduce bites and therefore reduce transfer of the protist to or from people.
- Removing standing water prevents or reduces mosquito breeding.
- This reduces the number of vectors able to transmit the pathogen.
- The two actions act at different stages, reducing both vector numbers and contact with people.
Method: Explain each intervention separately, then combine the causal chains: breeding control reduces the vector population, while nets reduce bites from vectors that remain.
4.3.1.6 · Human defence systems
- The skin forms a non-specific physical barrier that reduces entry of pathogens, while the nose traps particles and microorganisms before they travel further into the respiratory system.
- The trachea and bronchi produce mucus that traps pathogens, and cilia move the mucus towards the throat so it can be swallowed.
- Hydrochloric acid in the stomach kills many pathogens that are swallowed, providing another non-specific defence.
- If pathogens enter the body, white blood cells defend it by phagocytosis, by producing specific antibodies and by producing antitoxins that counteract bacterial toxins.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. State two ways white blood cells defend the body against pathogens.[2 marks]
Answer
- Any two from phagocytosis, production of antibodies and production of antitoxins.
Method: Recall any two of the three immune-system actions named in the specification; each distinct action earns one mark.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Explain how the nose, trachea and bronchi help prevent airborne pathogens from reaching the lungs.[4 marks]
Answer
- Nasal hairs and mucus trap particles and pathogens.
- Mucus in the trachea and bronchi also traps pathogens.
- Cilia move the mucus towards the throat.
- The mucus can be swallowed, so trapped pathogens are removed from the airways.
Method: Follow the pathogen through the respiratory route. State where it is trapped, then explain how cilia transport the mucus away from the lungs.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. A bacterium enters through a cut and releases a toxin. Explain how the body's defences normally prevent entry and how white blood cells respond once the skin barrier has been crossed.[6 marks]
Answer
- Intact skin normally acts as a physical barrier to pathogen entry.
- The cut bypasses this non-specific barrier.
- White blood cells can engulf and digest bacteria by phagocytosis.
- White blood cells can produce antibodies specific to antigens on the bacterium.
- The antibodies help target the pathogen for destruction.
- White blood cells can produce antitoxins that neutralise or counteract the bacterial toxin.
Method: Begin with the barrier and explain why the cut matters. Then distinguish the three white-cell responses: engulfing the pathogen, making specific antibodies against it, and making antitoxins against its toxin.
4.3.1.7 · Vaccination
- Vaccination introduces a small quantity of a dead or inactive form of a pathogen to stimulate white blood cells to produce antibodies without causing the full disease.
- If the same pathogen enters later, white blood cells respond rapidly and produce the correct antibodies, preventing illness.
- Immunising a large proportion of a population reduces transmission because a pathogen has fewer susceptible hosts to infect.
- A vaccine response is specific to the pathogen's antigens, so it is a misconception that one vaccination gives protection against every infectious disease.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. State what is introduced during vaccination and which response it stimulates.[2 marks]
Answer
- A small quantity of a dead or inactive form of the pathogen is introduced.
- White blood cells are stimulated to produce antibodies.
Method: Name both the vaccine material and the immune response; saying only that a vaccine contains medicine does not identify either required feature.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Explain why a vaccinated person usually responds more effectively when exposed later to the same pathogen.[4 marks]
Answer
- The vaccine has already stimulated production of antibodies against that pathogen.
- The immune system recognises the same pathogen or its antigens on later exposure.
- White blood cells produce the correct antibodies rapidly.
- The pathogen is destroyed before it causes illness.
Method: Use a chronological explanation: first exposure through vaccination establishes the specific response, then later recognition leads to faster production of the correct antibodies and prevents disease.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. Evaluate a programme intended to vaccinate a large proportion of the population against a serious communicable disease.[6 marks]
Answer
- Vaccinated individuals are less likely to become ill after exposure.
- A rapid specific antibody response can destroy the pathogen before disease develops.
- High uptake leaves fewer susceptible hosts and reduces transmission through the population.
- This can also reduce exposure of people who have not been immunised.
- The programme requires enough vaccine, staff, access and public uptake to reach a large proportion of the population.
- Its overall benefit is greatest when the disease is serious and high coverage substantially reduces illness and spread.
Method: Balance benefits to the individual with the population effect, then consider practical limits on achieving high uptake. Finish with a reasoned judgement linked to disease severity and coverage rather than listing points without a conclusion.
4.3.1.8 · Antibiotics and painkillers
- Antibiotics such as penicillin help cure bacterial disease by killing infective bacteria inside the body, and specific bacteria must be treated with an effective specific antibiotic.
- Antibiotics have greatly reduced deaths from bacterial infectious diseases, but antibiotic-resistant bacterial strains are an increasing concern.
- Antibiotics do not kill viruses, and it is difficult to develop drugs that kill viruses without also damaging the body's tissues because viruses reproduce inside cells.
- Painkillers and other symptom-relieving medicines may make a patient feel better but do not kill the pathogen, so symptom relief is not the same as curing the infection.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. State the difference between the action of an antibiotic and the action of a painkiller during an infectious disease.[2 marks]
Answer
- An effective antibiotic kills infective bacteria inside the body.
- A painkiller reduces symptoms such as pain but does not kill the pathogen.
Method: Contrast action on the cause of a bacterial infection with action on a symptom; do not claim that symptom relief removes the pathogen.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. A patient has a viral infection and asks for an antibiotic and a painkiller. Explain what each medicine could and could not do.[4 marks]
Answer
- The antibiotic would not kill the viral pathogen.
- Antibiotics act against bacteria rather than viruses.
- The painkiller could reduce pain or other symptoms.
- The painkiller would not kill the virus or cure the infection.
Method: Judge the two medicines separately. Reject the antibiotic because the pathogen is viral, and credit the painkiller only with symptom relief, not pathogen destruction.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. Explain why identifying whether an infection is bacterial or viral matters before treatment, and why a bacterial infection may still require a carefully chosen antibiotic.[5 marks]
Answer
- Antibiotics can kill infective bacteria but cannot kill viral pathogens.
- Using an antibiotic for a viral disease would not remove the cause of the infection.
- Different antibiotics are effective against different bacteria.
- Some bacterial strains are resistant to particular antibiotics.
- The chosen antibiotic must therefore be effective against the infecting bacterial strain.
Method: First classify the pathogen because antibiotic action is limited to bacteria. Then explain specificity and resistance: even for bacterial disease, the selected drug must work against that particular strain.
4.3.1.9 · Discovery and development of drugs
- Traditional medicines include digitalis from foxgloves and aspirin from willow, while Fleming discovered penicillin from Penicillium mould; most modern drugs are synthesised, although their starting chemicals may come from plants.
- Potential drugs are tested for toxicity, efficacy and dose before use, beginning with preclinical laboratory tests on cells, tissues and live animals.
- Clinical trials use healthy volunteers and patients, begin with very low doses, and continue to find the optimum dose only if the drug is found to be safe.
- Double-blind trials compare a drug with a placebo while reducing expectation and observer bias, and results are scrutinised through peer review; a common error is to treat early safety testing as proof that a drug is effective.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. Name the natural source associated with aspirin and with penicillin.[2 marks]
Answer
- Aspirin: willow.
- Penicillin: Penicillium mould.
Method: Match aspirin to its plant source and penicillin to the microorganism from which Fleming discovered it.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Describe how a potential new medicine moves from preclinical testing into clinical trials.[4 marks]
Answer
- Preclinical testing uses cells, tissues and live animals in a laboratory.
- Testing checks toxicity, efficacy and dose.
- Clinical trials then use healthy volunteers and patients.
- Trials begin with very low doses and, if safe, continue to find the optimum dose.
Method: Give the stages in order, including the preclinical test systems, the three properties examined, the clinical participants and the low-dose safety-first progression.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. Explain why a clinical trial may be double blind and include a placebo group, and why its results should be peer reviewed before the drug is widely used.[6 marks]
Answer
- Some participants receive the drug and others receive a placebo for comparison.
- The placebo controls for changes caused by expectations rather than the active drug.
- In a double-blind trial, neither the patients nor the people assessing them know who received the drug during the trial.
- This reduces bias in reporting and assessing outcomes.
- Comparing the groups helps judge the drug's efficacy and identify unwanted effects.
- Peer review allows other scientists to scrutinise the methods, evidence and conclusions before the findings are accepted.
Method: Explain the purpose of each design feature rather than merely naming it: placebo provides a control, blinding reduces bias, comparison supplies evidence of effect, and peer review checks whether the study supports its claims.
4.3.2.1 · Producing monoclonal antibodies (biology only) (HT only)
- Higher tier: in separate biology, monoclonal antibodies are produced by a single clone of cells and are specific to one binding site on one protein antigen.
- Higher tier: mouse lymphocytes are stimulated to produce a particular antibody and then combined with tumour cells to form hybridoma cells.
- Higher tier: a hybridoma combines the lymphocyte's ability to make the antibody with the tumour cell's ability to divide repeatedly.
- Higher tier: single hybridoma cells are cloned so all the cells make the same antibody, which is then collected and purified; cloning a mixed population would not guarantee one monoclonal antibody.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. Higher tier: state what makes an antibody monoclonal and describe its antigen specificity.[2 marks]
Answer
- It is produced by a single clone of cells.
- It binds to one specific binding site on one protein antigen.
Method: Give both defining features: common clonal origin and specificity to one antigen binding site.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Higher tier: describe how lymphocytes and tumour cells are used to produce a large quantity of one monoclonal antibody.[4 marks]
Answer
- Stimulate mouse lymphocytes to make the required antibody.
- Combine the lymphocytes with tumour cells to form hybridoma cells.
- Select and clone a single hybridoma that makes the required antibody to produce many identical cells.
- Collect and purify the antibody produced.
Method: Present the production process in order from stimulated lymphocyte to fusion, single-cell selection, cloning and purification. Each stage ensures both scale and one antibody specificity.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. Higher tier: explain why neither a normal antibody-producing lymphocyte nor a tumour cell alone is ideal for mass production, and why a single hybridoma is cloned before the antibody is purified.[6 marks]
Answer
- The lymphocyte makes the required specific antibody but does not divide indefinitely.
- The tumour cell can divide repeatedly but does not make the required antibody.
- Fusion produces a hybridoma with both useful properties.
- Selecting one hybridoma ensures the chosen cell makes the required antibody.
- Cloning produces many identical cells that all make the same antibody.
- The resulting antibody can be collected in large amounts and purified from other material.
Method: Contrast the two parent cells, then show how fusion combines their useful features. Finally link single-cell cloning to identical antibody specificity and repeated division to large-scale collection.
4.3.2.2 · Uses of monoclonal antibodies (biology only) (HT only)
- Higher tier: in separate biology, monoclonal antibodies can be used in diagnostic tests such as pregnancy tests and in laboratories to measure hormones or other blood chemicals and to detect pathogens.
- Higher tier: a fluorescent dye attached to a monoclonal antibody allows researchers to locate a specific molecule in a cell or tissue when the antibody binds to it.
- Higher tier: a monoclonal antibody can carry a radioactive substance, toxic drug or cell-division inhibitor to cancer cells by binding to their specific antigens while limiting harm to other cells.
- Higher tier: monoclonal antibodies have produced more side effects than expected and are not as widely used as first hoped, so their targeting benefit must be evaluated against possible harms.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. Higher tier: state two uses of monoclonal antibodies other than treating cancer.[2 marks]
Answer
- Any two from pregnancy testing, measuring hormones or other chemicals in blood, detecting pathogens, or locating specific molecules in cells or tissues.
Method: Choose two distinct specified uses; examples from the same application should not be counted twice unless they perform different functions.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Higher tier: explain how a fluorescent monoclonal antibody can help a researcher locate a particular protein in a tissue sample.[4 marks]
Answer
- Choose a monoclonal antibody specific to an antigen or binding site on the protein.
- Attach a fluorescent dye to the antibody.
- The antibody binds only where the target protein is present.
- The fluorescent signal reveals the protein's location in the tissue.
Method: Link specificity to selective binding, then link the attached fluorescent label to a visible signal at the target's position.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. Higher tier: a cancer treatment attaches a toxic drug to a monoclonal antibody. Explain how the treatment works and evaluate one advantage and one limitation.[6 marks]
Answer
- The monoclonal antibody is specific to an antigen on the cancer cells.
- It binds to the cancer cells and carries the attached toxic drug to them.
- The toxic drug kills the cancer cells or stops them growing and dividing.
- Targeting can reduce damage to other cells compared with delivering the toxin throughout the body without a carrier.
- Monoclonal antibodies can still cause unexpected side effects.
- The treatment is useful only when its targeting benefit outweighs its side effects and other limitations.
Method: Describe specific binding and delivery before evaluating. The advantage follows from concentrating the attached treatment at target cells; the limitation follows from the specification's warning about side effects.
4.3.3.1 · Detection and identification of plant diseases (biology only)
- Higher tier: in separate biology, plant disease may be detected from stunted growth, leaf spots, decay, growths, malformed stems or leaves, discolouration or the presence of pests.
- Higher tier: an affected plant can be identified using a gardening manual or website, by laboratory identification of the pathogen, or with a testing kit containing monoclonal antibodies.
- In separate biology, plant problems may be caused by viral, bacterial or fungal pathogens or by insects; required examples are tobacco mosaic virus, rose black spot and aphids.
- Nitrate deficiency causes stunted growth because nitrate ions are needed for protein synthesis, whereas magnesium deficiency causes chlorosis because magnesium ions are needed to make chlorophyll.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. Name the ion deficiency that causes stunted growth and the ion deficiency that causes chlorosis.[2 marks]
Answer
- Stunted growth: nitrate ion deficiency.
- Chlorosis: magnesium ion deficiency.
Method: Match nitrate deficiency to stunted growth and magnesium deficiency to chlorosis; the roles in protein and chlorophyll production explain these pairings.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Higher tier: a plant has malformed, discoloured leaves. Describe three ways a grower could identify the cause rather than relying on the symptoms alone.[3 marks]
Answer
- Compare the symptoms with a gardening manual or reliable website.
- Send or take infected plant material to a laboratory to identify the pathogen.
- Use an appropriate testing kit containing monoclonal antibodies.
Method: List the three specified identification routes. The question asks for identification, so repeating visual symptoms without using a reference, laboratory or test kit does not answer it.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. Higher tier: a crop has patches of discoloured leaves, some visible aphids and reduced growth. Explain why the symptoms alone do not prove one cause and outline how the grower could distinguish infection, insect damage and ion deficiency.[6 marks]
Answer
- Similar symptoms such as discolouration or reduced growth can have more than one cause.
- Inspect the plants for pests such as aphids and for characteristic disease patterns such as TMV mosaic or rose black spot.
- Compare the full symptom pattern with a gardening manual or reliable website.
- Use a laboratory or a monoclonal-antibody test kit to identify a suspected pathogen.
- Test or change mineral supply: nitrate deficiency is linked to stunted growth because nitrate is needed for proteins.
- Magnesium deficiency is linked to chlorosis because magnesium is needed for chlorophyll, so evidence from several checks supports the diagnosis.
Method: Do not diagnose from one non-specific symptom. Combine pest inspection and characteristic examples with the Higher-tier identification methods, then use the distinct biological roles of nitrate and magnesium to assess deficiency explanations.
4.3.3.2 · Plant defence responses (biology only)
- In separate biology, physical defences against microorganisms include cellulose cell walls, a tough waxy cuticle on leaves and layers of dead cells around stems that can fall off.
- Plants may produce antibacterial chemicals against microorganisms and poisons that deter herbivores as chemical defences.
- Mechanical adaptations include thorns and hairs that deter animals, leaves that droop or curl when touched, and mimicry that tricks animals.
- A common error is to describe every defence as physical; AQA distinguishes physical barriers, defensive chemicals and mechanical adaptations.
Tier 1 · Easy
1. State one physical and one chemical plant defence response.[2 marks]
Answer
- Physical: cellulose cell wall, tough waxy cuticle or layers of dead cells around stems.
- Chemical: antibacterial chemicals or poisons that deter herbivores.
Method: Give one example from each named category, taking care not to count the same feature twice.
Tier 2 · Standard
1. Explain how a tough waxy cuticle and layers of dead cells around a stem defend a plant from microorganisms.[4 marks]
Answer
- The tough waxy cuticle forms a physical barrier on the leaf surface.
- It resists entry of microorganisms into living leaf tissues.
- Layers of dead cells form a barrier around the stem.
- When dead outer layers fall off, microorganisms on them can be removed from the plant.
Method: Explain each structure as a physical barrier, then add the distinctive role of shedding dead outer cells in removing attached microorganisms.
Tier 3 · Hard
1. A plant has a waxy leaf surface, produces an antibacterial chemical, grows hairs and curls its leaves when touched. Classify each response and explain how the combination protects the plant.[6 marks]
Answer
- The waxy surface is a physical defence that resists invasion by microorganisms.
- The antibacterial substance is a chemical defence that inhibits or kills bacteria.
- The hairs are a mechanical adaptation that deters animals.
- Leaf curling when touched is a mechanical adaptation that discourages or dislodges animals.
- The responses act against both microorganisms and herbivores.
- Using different kinds of defence reduces damage through more than one route.
Method: Classify all four features using the specification's categories, state the target or action of each, and finish by explaining why several defences protect against different threats.